| darkness_falls |
10-15-2008 02:33 AM |
Yes and no. A subset of a <= A.
Therefore if a contains all of elements of A, and it does because that's the definition of a subset, then certainly we can say a = A. Which is the point I was trying to make.
It is like saying a square is a rectangle.
However A = a if and only if for every element in A there is an element in a. But a rectangle is not a square.
You are forgetting in logic = is a bi conditional operator. :p
What my point was that you say that rap has at most two elements of what you called music. But if it has two elements of what you call music then rap is most certainly music. A subset of a set most certainly is within the bounds of said set.
And if you make the counterclaim that rap contains some elements not found in music then we get into probability. However again rap has at least 2 out of 4 elements of what you said are required for music; then at most you can say rap is 50% likely to be music. However you can not say rap is not music, because that is 0% assumption (meaning that rap must have no elements in set of all music); which is impossible in the logic that you presented to us.
My sir your logic is flawed.
I know that I may not dissuade your opinion of rap not being music, but my point is that you can not certainly go around making false statements and using logic to back up an opinion.
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